A litmus test for liberalism
The last two posts on inalienable rights here and here outlined the theory that descends from the Reformation and Enlightenment. The theory of inalienable rights serves as a litmus test for modern liberal and contractarian theories of justice. There are some historical voluntary contracts that are now deemed invalid and outlawed:
- an individual self-sale, voluntary slavery, or lifetime labor contract and
- a political pact of subjection or pactum subjectionis.
Surely it is not too much to ask a modern liberal theory of justice that it provide a coherent account of why such contracts should be deemed invalid and why the rights such contracts would legally alienate are inalienable. In that sense, the theory of inalienable rights provides a historical litmus test for liberalism.
In addition to this historical litmus test, one might apply another more current test. Suppose a philosopher lived his or her whole life in a society with the economy based on some people owning other people, and where the ownership was based on a contractual relationship. Suppose the philosopher wrote extensively about justice but never raised the possibility that there might be something inherently unjust and wrong in a contractual relationship wherein some people owned others. Regardless of what marvelous subtleties there might be in the philosopher’s theory of justice (e.g., how to fairly divide a piece of cake), one might consider it lacking in a rather fundamental way. It would fail a rather simple litmus test. The failure to even raise the question about the ownership of other people would condemn the theory of justice as a sophisticated apologia-by-omission for the status quo.
My contention is that we are now in exactly this situation but with “renting other people” substituted for “owning other people” as the litmus test. Today any contract resembling a self-sale contract (or an upfront paid) lifetime labor contract would not be recognized as valid by the legal authorities. But the self-rental or employer-employee contract is the basis of the current economic system and is accepted by liberal-contractarian philosophers of justice as a matter of course without comment.
John Rawls’ Theory of Justice
John Rawls‘ Theory of Justice is generally recognized as giving the most sophisticated modern development of a liberal-contractarian theory of justice. Rawls’ Harvard colleague, Robert Nozick, had a theory that explicitly accepted the voluntary slavery contract and the political pact of subjection. Although Rawls’ personal views were undoubtedly against such contracts, did he have any theory that would rule out those contracts that have already been outlawed?
It was previously noted how the doctrine of the liberty of conscience was connected to the notion of inalienability with Spinoza and Hutcheson being two of the pivotal figures to explicitly make the connection as they introduced the notion of inalienable rights. The liberty of conscience is a central theme in Rawls’ Political Liberalism.
Thus, the historical origin of political liberalism (and of liberalism more generally) is the Reformation and its aftermath, with the long controversies over religious toleration in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries. Something like the modern understanding of liberty of conscience and freedom of thought began then. [Rawls 1996, p. xxvi; see also Lecture VIII]
These are precisely the themes underlying Spinoza’s and Hutcheson’s bridge from liberty of conscience to inalienability but Rawls did not cross that bridge. Rawls’ treatment of inalienability is in a brief aside about the inalienability of all the basic liberties where he makes an old and rather standard argument about inalienability [Rawls 1996, pp. 365-7]. Like many earlier thinkers in the broadly liberal tradition, he argues against a straw man extreme case of alienating all the basic liberties. But once the alienation becomes qualified and restricted then it is accepted.
In the earlier post on slavery, we saw this same pattern of argument in Locke and Blackstone who with great moral flourish condemned a contract to enter into an extreme form of slavery (like the Roman slavery where the master could take the slave’s life). But once the contract becomes civilized and limited, then it is accepted and appropriately renamed (“drudgery” in the case of Locke and “perpetual service” in the case of Blackstone).
Montesquieu also used this pattern of argument: “To sell one’s freedom is so repugnant to all reason as can scarcely be supposed in any man. If liberty may be rated with respect to the buyer, it is beyond all price to the seller.” [Montesquieu 1912, Vol. I, Bk. XV, Chap. II, p. 284] Rawls paraphrases this argument from Montesquieu and goes on to argue that in the original position, the “grounds upon which the parties are moved to guarantee these liberties, together with the constraints of the reasonable, explain why the basic liberties are, so to speak, beyond all price to persons so conceived.” [Rawls 1996, p. 366]
Now in the passage paraphrased by Rawls, Montesquieu adds the footnote: “I mean slavery in a strict sense, as it formerly existed among the Romans, and exists at present in our colonies.” [Montesquieu 1912, Vol. I, Bk. XV, Chap. II, p. 284, fn. 1] As with Locke and Blackstone, Montesquieu goes on to note that this would not exclude a civilized or “mild” form of the contract.
This is the true and rational origin of that mild law of slavery which obtains in some countries; and mild it ought to be, as founded on the free choice a man makes of a master, for his own benefit; which forms a mutual convention between two parties. [Vol. I, Bk. XV, Chap. V, p. 287]
And Rawls goes on to note:
This explanation of why the basic liberties are inalienable does not exclude the possibility that even in a well-ordered society some citizens may want to circumscribe or alienate one or more of their basic liberties. …
Unless these possibilities affect the agreement of the parties in the original position (and I hold that they do not), they are irrelevant to the inalienability of the basic liberties. [Rawls 1996, pp. 366-7 and fn. 82]
Moreover, the extreme case argument for inalienability had little relevance in the historical debates (other superficial and ad hoc arguments against slavery contracts or political pacts of subjection were treated in the Philmore paper referred to here). The proslavery writers were quick to point out the laws protecting slaves on the ante-bellum law books and Hobbes excluded the alienation of the right to life from his pactum subjectionis (since the whole idea was to better protect life by stopping the war of all against all).
Like most modern liberal-contractarian philosophers of justice, Rawls not only fails the litmus test of ruling out the renting of people; he does not even raise the question as a topic for a Theory of Justice—which leaves that theory as a sophisticated apologia-by-omission for a society based on the human rental relationship.
But there is also a low-hurdle historical litmus test: does the theory rule out a civilized non-discriminatory version of the older alienation contracts, e.g., the self-sale contract and the political pact of subjection? Since all these contracts have been abolished in modern democratic societies, it would seem that a theory of justice should, at a bare minimum, be able to give a direct and coherent account about why these contracts should be invalid in spite of consent, and why the underlying rights are inalienable. This is not a question about Rawls’ personal views but about whether his theory of justice ruled out these contracts.
There is something of a continuum between the self-rental contract and a civilized form of the self-sale or lifetime labor contract. Rawls’ theory of justice accepted the self-rental contract completely as a matter of course so it is hard to see how the theory could suddenly generate a bright line constraint to rule out the longer version of the master-servant contract. In ante-bellum American law, the self-sale contract was formulated in racial terms which would violate Rawls’ veil of ignorance. But a limited race-neutral contract, e.g., the self-sale contract envisioned in Nozick’s “free system,” would not violate that non-discrimination condition.
Similar remarks could be applied to the political pact of subjection, the contract for the alienation of self-governance rights. Some traditional views of the hierarchy embodied in an autocracy saw most people “born with saddles on their back” with “a favored few booted and spurred, ready to ride them” [Jefferson 1904-5, p. 225] and such views might have the contractarian gloss of an implicit contract of subjection vouchsafed by the prescription of time. But such hierarchical classifications would violate Rawls’ veil of ignorance. However, a classless modernized self-governance-alienation contract, such as Nozick’s contract with a “dominant protective association,” would not be ruled out by Rawls’ theory just as the theory does not rule out the workplace self-governance-alienation contract, i.e., the employment contract.
The contractarian approach is quite important in the history of philosophy since it provided the ‘best’ apologies for personal and political subjection and Rawls was well aware of that tradition from the history given in Philmore (personal communication). Since those two contracts are already outlawed in the modern democracies, it would seem to be a reasonable litmus test for any theory of justice set forth today that it provide a plausible counter-theory to refute those ‘best’ contractarian arguments. Such a theory of inalienable rights was indeed hammered out in the democratic and abolitionist movements but that theory did not survive in Rawls’ work in spite of the direct connection with the liberty of conscience.
John Rawls lived his whole life in an economic system where employees are “not counted as sources of claims” on the products they produce and are “not counted as capable of having …obligations” [Rawls 1996, p. 33] to meet the costs they incur in production, and where other persons, the employers, “control and own the product of their labor”. [Rawls 1996, 122] The given quotes are from Rawls’ description of slavery but the specific aspects quoted also apply to the system where workers are rented, hired, or employed rather than owned by an employer or master. Those aspects of the legal structure of a productive enterprise do not depend on the duration of the labor contracts, i.e., on whether the workers are hired or owned by the masters. For instance, the masters or employers “control and own the product” of the servant’s or employee’s labor regardless of the duration of the hiring contract. Yet in Rawls’ considerable writings about justice, he never raised the question of a potential justice problem inherent in the whole system of renting human beings.
The alternative form of a private property market economy after the abolition of the employment relation would have all firms reconstituted as democratic organizations with the people working in the firm as its legal members. [see Ellerman 1990] Since Rawls did not explicitly consider the inalienability analysis of the employment contract, the contract which also functions as the workplace pactum subjectionis, the “Theory [of Justice] leaves aside for the most part the question of the claims of democracy in the firm and the workplace… .” [Rawls 1996, p. xxx]
Conclusions
Our overall purpose was the examination of liberal-contractarian philosophies of justice—with John Rawls as the principal modern example—from the viewpoint of the theory of inalienability that descends from the Reformation and Enlightenment.
Perhaps the biggest surprise in the recovery of inalienable rights theory is that it clearly applies to the contract for the renting of persons, today’s employment contract. Since the employment contract is the basis for our present economic system, it should perhaps not be a surprise that the inalienability theory has been neglected by modern economists, legal theorists, and philosophers.
As each of the historical contracts of subjection were outlawed as a result of the efforts of the anti-slavery and democratic movements, liberal-contractarian philosophy recasts each of the historical debates into a discourse of coercion versus consent (and Marxism, as the preferred foil for liberalism, obligingly accepts the bogus framing and counterargues that wage labor is “really” involuntary). The past institutions of subjection are then seen as being coercive by definition and are supposedly ruled out on those grounds. Hence there is no need to consider any potentially troublesome theory about certain voluntary contracts being inherently invalid and certain rights being inherently inalienable even with consent.
This post is based on a paper, “Inalienable Rights: A Litmus Test for Liberal Theories of Justice,” published in the journal: Law and Philosophy. A reprint can be downloaded here.
References
David Ellerman, 1990. The Democratic Worker-Owned Firm. London: Unwin-Hyman. Downloadable here.
Thomas Jefferson, 1904-5. The Works of Thomas Jefferson in Twelve Volumes. Vol. 12. Correspondence and Papers: 1816-26. Ford (ed.). Federal Edition. New York: G.P. Putnam’s Sons.
Montesquieu 1912 (1748). The Spirit of the Laws. T. Nugent (trans.), New York: Appleton.
Rawls, John 1971. A Theory of Justice. Cambridge: Harvard University Press.
Rawls, John 1996. Political Liberalism. New York: Columbia University Press.

I am curious how your perspective on inalienable rights deals with the legitimacy of the (democratic) state? Is the modern democratic state legitimate on your view, or would your view require a different set of democratic political institutions?
March 31, 2010 @ 10:46 am
@MacKenzie. The key distinction in the development of democratic theory was between social contracts or constitutions of alienation or delegation. Where the founding constitution is one of delegation, then the collective entity has some legitimacy in theory although there is a myriad of ways that an organization can malfunction as we constantly see. But rather than letting the best be the enemy of the good, I have focused on the question of a collective entity being legitimate in theory–as opposed to its practice. Thus, for example, a democratic government would have that legitimacy (in theory) whereas a corporation operating on the basis of the employment contract (a mini-social contract of alienation) does not even have that legitimacy in theory.
Going beyond that basic question of legitimacy-in-theory, one could consider many ways that democratic governments could be improved, and that is more the topic of conventional political science.
March 31, 2010 @ 12:04 pm
I’ve enjoyed this 3 part series. I read P&C in Economics a while back and I agreed with most of what you were saying but I have a couple of questions on alternative justifications of the employment contract, sorry if you’ve answered them before.
Nozick doesn’t have a monopoly on libertarianism. Murray Rothbard, who isn’t as well known but is IMO a better philosopher, accepted the inalienability argument but argued for employment. His basic argument was that promising to work is not enforceable but any property transferred on the condition that you will work is. The worker never has to rent their self determination to the employer they just have to keep turning up in order to keep getting paid. The property being used in production is transferred back and forth between the workers and capitalists so everyone remains responsible for their own actions. The capitalists let the workers use the capital (which is alienable) on the condition they recieve the full product from the workers (which is alienable) who in turn only transfer the full product on the condition that they get paid money (which is alienable) for doing so. Anything else is just a condition on which these actions will be performed. What would you’re response be to this?
Also
“The key distinction in the development of democratic theory was between social contracts or constitutions of alienation or delegation.”
Wouldn’t the problem with applying this to democratic government be that in order to remain a contract of delegation the citizen would need to be able to revoke it at will. If we can’t rent our decision making power to employers for 8 hours a day (which we can’t) then why would we be able to rent it to governments for however long they remain in power?
April 19, 2010 @ 12:16 pm
@James.
It is of course possible for workers to appropriate their own product (think of a family farmer) and then to sell it in advance (e.g., as some farmers do with futures contracts). But it is sheer fantasy to imagine that all conventional firms can be “interpreted” as worker-managed firms where someone sells them the inputs, puts conditions on the use of the inputs (that is supposed to equal the employer’s detailed discretionary control over production), and then buys back the product from the labor-managed firm. That is simply not the structure of property rights in a conventional employment firm. This seems to be some sort of an armchair game played to just ignore the structure of property rights in a conventional firm and to “say” they were something entirely different. Imagine what one could do with a similar exercise to “reinterpret” slavery, autocracy, coverture marriage, or the like.
In fact, the conclusion that there is something inherently wrong with the renting of people in the employment contract is simply not psychologically available to 99 44/100% of the population born and raised in our society, so they will welcome any comforting fantasy like “think of it as something entirely different.” Rothbard was not alone in to some extent realizing the inherent inalienability of responsible human action. Randy Barnett in his writings on inalienability is another example. But in neither case is the straightforward conclusion psychologically available so various fantasies and subterfuges are employed to “turn the page” and go on to other more pleasant matters.
In your second remark, it is important to distinguish between between critiques of how some institution functions in practice and the institution-in-theory. Democratic government is in theory based on a social contract of delegation, not a contract of alienation, but this is typically so compromised in practice that the “delegation” often seems unreal. Much of the anarchist literature seems unsure or confused if they are criticizing the “government” in theory or just in practice. When it comes to practical alternatives, serious anarchists look to much smaller governmental units where the in-theory delegation has a better chance of meaning something in reality. One example that comes to mind is the work of the bioregionalist Leopold Kohr. But my arguments are almost always in-theory arguments, e.g., the employer is not even a delegate or representative of the employees in theory. Of course, there have been historical examples of firms that are democratic in theory, but fall short in practice, and the same has typically be true of democratic(-in-theory) governments.
April 19, 2010 @ 1:00 pm
Their argument isn’t that the firm can be interpreted as labour managed (which would be fantasy) but that an emplyment contract doesn’t neccessarily involve self-rental. according to the title-transfer theory of contracts all that can be enforced is the exchange of any alienable property whereas self-rental would imply the to promise to work being enforceable as well. It is perhaps a stretch of the imagination to see managements control of the firm as just a set of conditions and incomplete contracts would definately present a problem (from some people’s point of view…) but if workers can delegate control in a labour-managed firm without it being alienated then couldn’t they do the same in a conventional firm? I don’t think the same argument can be made about slavery because you can’t back out of slavery contracts so they neccessarily require control being alienated.
April 21, 2010 @ 3:16 pm
@James
There is an unwarranted assumption that all contracts need to be “enforceable” by specific performance–which is not even true for contracts in alienable property. The usual recourse in the case of breach is damages.
Moreover there is the assumption that “you can’t back out of slavery contracts” as if that was something specific to the civilized contract considered by the contractarian defenders of slavery. But that is true of any contract where one party performs upfront and the other party has to perform over a period of time (like any loan or mortgage). This whole argument was in fact dealt with in an earlier post: http://www.blog.ellerman.org/2010/03/are-the-self-sale-and-self-rental-contracts-on-the-same-moral-footing/ .
If the workers in a firm pay the costs of production, appropriate and sell the product (in a futures contract or not), and have the discretionary control over the process within the constraints of their alienable-property contracts, then that would indeed be a labor-managed firm, and I think we agree that it is a complete fantasy to interpret a conventional firm in that manner.
All collective action, whether in a slave plantation, employment firm, or democratic organization, requires some “taking of orders”, not simply everyone doing what they like. The difference lies in the order-giver being a master to whom one has legally alienated control (control exercised in the master’s own name and interests) or in the order-giver being a leader or governor to whom certain decisions have been delegated as the representative of the citizens or members who carry out the decisions. The difference lies in the difference between the two structures, not in some psychological circumstance of a person taking orders—which would be involved in any example of collective activity no matter what the structure was.
April 21, 2010 @ 5:11 pm
Perhaps, but I don’t think the argument requires the assumption that specific performances are enforced. If X makes a promise to Y and breaks it then x isn’t required to pay any damages. If some of Y’s property was given to X on the condition that X keeps their promise then the Rothbardian argument is X has implicitly stolen Y’s property and has to pay damages for doing that. Nothing about this implies that it’s the promise to work (short or long term) that is being enforced. There is also an assumption that in the case of loans and mortgages you can’t back out either but surely the very same argument should lead us to question this. This article argues that all contracts have to be “enforced” via performance bonds, contract insurance etc. http://libertariannation.org/a/f73h1.html.
My point about taking orders in a labour managed firm is that we both agree this is merely delegation and the workers remain fully fledged self-owners. Therefore it doesn’t follow that taking orders from management requires alienation either. I’m sure you’re aware of consequentialist arguments along the lines of “workers don’t want to accept the risks” so there is some sense in which, or atleast it could be argued that, employers posses some of the characteristics of the second type of order-giver.
April 23, 2010 @ 4:05 am
@James
It is of course easier to deal with a breached contract if there is some collateral or bond put up–particularly if it can be secured by the damaged party without the necessary cooperation of the other party. Many contracts, particularly international contracts where the two parties are in different legal jurisdictions are often crafted with all sorts of extra clauses to explicitly deal with breaches. Halliday’s suggestions that all loan contracts or contracts that require future performance involve some such collateral or bond is a fine idea for careful lenders but it leads to the same problem when the breaching party can also breach on the performance bond or handing over the collateral. Then we are back to the usual enforcement problem.
But in any case, this whole argument about trying to single out contractual slavery as being ruled out by the problems of enforcement as opposed to the wage contract has been dealt with repeatedly. In a previous post, http://www.blog.ellerman.org/2010/03/are-the-self-sale-and-self-rental-contracts-on-the-same-moral-footing/ , I gave the quote from Rothbard himself that when a voluntary slave chooses to exit the contract at any point, then he would be required to repay a proportionate amount of the original contractual payment to the slave.
Moreover, I am amused by free-market libertarians, of all people, making the argument that certain mutually voluntary contracts should be disallowed because of enforcement problems when one party breaches. All those problems are taken into account by the Free Market. Have they no Faith in the Market? All that would be rolled into the price paid in the first place for the voluntary slave’s labor.
The second point of amusement is Halliday and Barnett’s apparent understanding that human decision-making and responsibility is not in fact alienable, but they cannot bring themselves to rule out the short-term contract to sell labor on those grounds. They keep raising the red herring about enforceability in the case of breach when the problem is that labor is never transferred in the first place as is so obvious in the criminous employee example. If the “commodity” that is being sold cannot be in fact transferred from seller to buyer, then the contract is ALWAYS breached (as we all understand in the criminous employee case). What in fact takes place in the cases where it is supposedly not “breached” is the co-operation of responsible human beings to carry out some collective task and where they share the de facto responsibility for the results (positive and negative) as I have written about at great length in the Property & Contract book and elsewhere. But only one of the parties, the employer, gets 100% of the legal responsibility for the positive and negative results…
BTW, Halliday’s imaginative interpretation of the employment contract as a wager or bet changes nothing in that argument.
April 23, 2010 @ 10:24 am